AIBE Exam Mock Test Welcome to your AIBE XXII Mock Test – Set 1 In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II. Statement : Section 5 of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 gives a detailed procedure for fixing or revising minimum wages in respect of any scheduled employment. After considering the advice of the committees appointed, and all representations received by it before the date notified in the Gazette notification, the appropriate Government may by notification in the official gazette, fix or revise the minimum rates of wages. Conclusion I : If a date is specified in the notification, the minimum rates shall come into force from such date. Conclusion II : If no date is specified, then they shall come into force from the expiry of three months from the date of issue of the notification. In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct ? Both Conclusions I and II follow Only Conclusion I follows Only Conclusion II follows Neither Conclusion I nor II follows None Which of the following is included in the Central Government’s power under Section 3(2)(ii) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 ? Carrying out and sponsoring investigations and research relating to problems of environmental pollution Laying down standards for the quality of the environment in its various aspects Collection and dissemination of information in respect of matters relating to environmental pollution Planning and execution of a nation‑wide programme for the prevention, control and abatement of environmental pollution None Under the Constitution of India, consider the following statements in the context of constitutional amendments : I. Judicial review extends to constitutional amendments. II. Laws inserted into the Ninth Schedule after 24th April, 1973 remain open to scrutiny for violation of the basic structure. III. Parliament’s amending power under Article 368 is unlimited. Which of the above statements is/are correct ? I only I and II II and III I, II and III None The case of Parmanand Katara v. Union of India (1989) is primarily associated with which of the following rights ? Right to speedy trial Right to clean and healthy environment Right to emergency medical care Right to life and personal liberty None What do you mean by ‘onus probandi’ ? ‘Burden of proof’ which places the responsibility on the party making an affirmative claim to substantiate it with evidence. “The fact to be proved” or the “ultimate fact” that needs to be established in a legal case, such as the core elements of a crime or a cause of action. The prosecution in a criminal case must prove beyond a reasonable doubt, not only a criminal act, but also a certain level of a guilty mind (mens rea), specified in the criminal statute. Actual evidence, documents, or witnesses presented to substantiate that claim. None According to Section 25(b) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, where the respondent fails to submit his statement of defence without sufficient cause, the arbitral tribunal shall : Treat the claimant’s allegations as admitted. Proceed to decide the dispute treating the claimant’s case as uncontroverted. Continue the proceedings without treating such failure as admission. Terminate the proceedings. None According to the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a suit has abated due to failure to bring legal representatives on record within the prescribed time, the court may set aside such abatement if the plaintiff shows : That decree has not yet been passed. Sufficient cause for not making the application within time. Error apparent on the face of record. That the defendant had knowledge of death. None Which of the following statements is not true with respect to Section 65B of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ? Arjun Panditrao Khotkar v. Kailash Kushanrao Gorantyal, (2020) 7 SCC 1 – landmark judgment stands as the latest interpretation of the relevant provisions, offering a consistent approach in line with the legislative intent. The requirement of a certificate under Section 65B(4) of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (“Evidence Act”), is a condition precedent to the admissibility of an electronic record in evidence. In P.V. Anvar v. P.K. Basheer, the court held that Section 65B is a “complete code” for electronic evidence. In State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu, reported in AIR 2005 SC 3820, the Hon’ble Supreme Court had held that courts could admit electronic records such as printouts and compact discs (CDs) as prima facie evidence without authentication. None Under the Parsi Marriage and Divorce Act, 1936, for what duration can maintenance be awarded ? For a fixed term not exceeding ten years For a term not exceeding the life of the plaintiff For a period determined solely by the Registrar For a maximum of five years only None The term “Public Interest Litigation (PIL)” was first used by : Prof. Abram Chayes Justice P.N. Bhagwati Prof. Upendra Baxi Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer None Under the law relating to land acquisition under the relevant laws in India, which of the following statements is not true ? Such interested persons may file objections within 6 months of the notice having been issued. All persons interested in the land in question shall appear personally before the Collector. A minimum notice period of 30 days is to be given to all the persons interested. The Collector shall publish the public notice on his website. None Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Under the Copyright Act, 1957 : Statement I : In the case of a posthumous literary work, copyright subsists for sixty years from the beginning of the calendar year next following the year in which the work is first published. Statement II : For such works, publication refers to making the work available to the public by issue of copies or by communication to the public. Both Statements I and II are true Both Statements I and II are false Only Statement II is true Only Statement I is true None In execution proceedings governed by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where property of the judgment‑debtor is attached and a third party raises a claim asserting independent title, such claim : Can be decided only after completion of execution proceedings. Must be decided by instituting a separate civil suit. Shall be adjudicated by the executing court. Requires prior determination by the court which passed the decree. None Under the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, what is the minimum term of imprisonment prescribed for giving or taking dowry ? Not less than ten years Not less than three years Not less than seven years Not less than five years None Which is the landmark case which expanded the scope of Article 23 of the Constitution of India ? Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan, (1997) 6 SCC 241 PUDR v. Union of India, (1982) 3 SCC 235 M.C. Mehta v. State of Tamil Nadu, (1996) 6 SCC 756 Glaxo Laboratories v. Presiding Officer, Labour Court, Meerut, (1984) 1 SCC 1 None Under the scheme of distribution of legislative powers in the Constitution of India, a subject which is not enumerated in either the State List or the Concurrent List falls within the residuary field of legislation. Such residuary power is vested in : The Supreme Court of India The Parliament The State Legislatures The President of India None Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement I : Ossification test is the final test to analyze bone fusion for estimating the age of a juvenile as per law. Statement II : Statutory documents like a birth certificate will be given precedence to determine the juvenile. In the context of the above statements under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, which one of the following options is correct ? Only Statement II is true Both Statements I and II are false Both Statements I and II are true Only Statement I is true None In Roman jurisprudence, the concept similar to the Rule of Law was referred to as : Jus Civile Lex Regia Jus Naturale Jus Gentium None Directions : The following question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R) is a correct explanation of the Assertion (A). Assertion (A) : The Constitution of India does not adopt a rigid separation of powers among the Legislature, Executive and Judiciary. Reason (R) : The constitutional framework incorporates a system of checks and balances, allowing limited functional overlap among the organs of the State. In the context of the Constitution of India, which one of the following is correct ? (A) is false, but (R) is true. (A) is true, but (R) is false. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). None As per the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where the plaintiff in a civil suit fails to pay the requisite court fee or postal charges for service of summons within the time permitted by the court, the court may : Return the plaint for fresh presentation. Dismiss the suit. Stay the proceedings until service is effected. Proceed to decide the suit on merits. None In which of the following cases did Lord Wright observe that “the incalculable value of habeas corpus is that it enables the immediate determination of the applicant’s freedom” ? Attorney General for Hong Kong v. Ng Yuen Shiu (1983) 2 AC 629 Bugdaycay v. Secretary of State for the Home Department (1987) AC 514 Greene v. Secretary of State for Home Affairs (1942) AC 284 Attorney General for New South Wales v. Trethowan (1932) AC 526 None Which of the following statements are correct with reference to withdrawal and abandonment of suits under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 ? I. A plaintiff may withdraw or abandon a suit subject to the provisions of law. II. Institution of a fresh suit on the same cause of action requires permission of the court. III. Withdrawal of a suit without permission of the court to institute a fresh suit bars a subsequent suit on the same cause of action. IV. The court must grant permission whenever such request is made. Which of the above statements are correct ? I, II, III and IV I, II and III I, III and IV II, III and IV None Which of the following statements is not an example of the eggshell skull rule as per the law of torts ? A boy kicked another from across the aisle in the classroom. It turned out that the victim had an unknown microbial condition that was irritated, and resulted in him entirely losing the use of his leg. Nervous shock cases are also consistent with this principle. The rule is that if injury from nervous shock is reasonably foreseeable to an ordinarily strong‑nerved person situated in the position of the claimant, the defendant is liable for the full extent of the shock. A man had a heart attack and died after being bruised in the chest during a rear‑end car accident. ‘A’ underwent an appendectomy in a hospital. Despite the surgery going as planned, she continued to experience abdominal pain. It was later discovered that a needle had been left inside her abdomen, leading to further surgeries and prolonged suffering. None Under Section 173 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, if a police officer‑in‑charge determines that an investigation is not warranted because the case lacks sufficient gravity, they are legally obligated to notify the informant of this decision within : 14 days 7 days 30 days 24 hours None Under the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, which specific provision provides the legal definition for a ‘Bailable Offence’ ? Section 2(h) Section 2(x) Section 2(c) Section 2(a) None The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 is not applicable in which case ? National Company Law Tribunal Arbitral Tribunal Income Tax Appellate Tribunal National Green Tribunal None A Magistrate of the Second Class passes a sentence of one month’s imprisonment. The accused wants to appeal. Based on the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, which of the following is true ? The accused is entitled to file an appeal before the Court of Session. An appeal lies only if a fine was also imposed. The accused may prefer an appeal directly to the High Court. No appeal is maintainable in this specific instance. None Under the provisions of Section 362 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, which of the following is not a mandatory legal requirement (ingredient) to constitute the offence of ‘Abduction’ ? Compelling or inducing a person to move from one place to another The classification of the act as a “continuing offence” The employment of physical force or the use of deceitful means The person abducted must be a minor None A, aged 80 years, executes a registered deed transferring a parcel of land to a trust with the conditions that, “The property shall be used forever for maintaining a public library and reading room for the residents of Village X. However, if at any time the property ceases to be used for this purpose, it shall revert to my heirs. Further, the income from the property shall accumulate for 50 years before being used for expansion of the library.” Which of the following statements is most accurate in law ? The entire transfer is void because the reversionary clause creates uncertainty and violates public policy. The transfer is void because it violates the rule against perpetuity and the condition of accumulation beyond permissible limits. The transfer is valid in entirety, including the accumulation clause, because transfers for public purposes are fully exempt from all perpetuity‑related restrictions. The transfer is valid as it falls within the exception for public benefit, but the accumulation clause is void to the extent it exceeds statutory limits. None The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, has introduced a specific timeframe for the delivery of a judgment after the conclusion of arguments. What is that timeframe ? Within 90 days, provided the reasons for delay are recorded Within 30 days (extendable to 45 days) Within 60 days from the date of reserving the order Within a strict period of 15 days None Loading questions... Loading questions... Loading questions... Loading questions... Loading questions... Loading questions... Loading questions... Previous Start Quiz Next Time's up Welcome to your AIBE XXI mock test A contracts with B to construct a cold storage facility for ₹ 50 lakh within 6 months. After the expiry of the time period, B fails to perform the contract. A immediately hires C to complete the construction at ₹ 60 lakh and later files a suit against B claiming ₹ 10 lakh as the additional cost incurred. Which of the following statements is correct under the Specific Relief Act, 1963 ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 1 A can recover only if the court first declares B guilty of breach. A must sue only for damages and not substituted performance. A can recover ₹ 10 lakh because B breached the contract. A cannot recover the cost because A did not give B prior notice. None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. Under Section 105 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, what is now a mandatory requirement for the process of search and seizure conducted by the police ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 4 The acquisition of a signed written confession from the occupant of the premises The documentation of the entire search and seizure process via audio‑video electronic recording The presence of a Judicial Magistrate during the search The presence of at least five local residents as independent witnesses None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Under the Copyright Act, 1957 : Statement I : In the case of a posthumous literary work, copyright subsists for sixty years from the beginning of the calendar year next following the year in which the work is first published. Statement II : For such works, publication refers to making the work available to the public by issue of copies or by communication to the public. AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 5 Only Statement I is true Both Statements I and II are false Both Statements I and II are true Only Statement II is true None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. Under the Guardians and Wards Act, 1890, what condition applies for appointing a guardian for a married female minor ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 6 The husband must be declared legally incompetent The husband must consent to such appointment The parents must apply jointly for such appointment The husband must be considered unfit by the Court None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. Under the Constitution of India, consider the following statements in the context of constitutional amendments : I. Judicial review extends to constitutional amendments. II. Laws inserted into the Ninth Schedule after 24th April, 1973 remain open to scrutiny for violation of the basic structure. III. Parliament’s amending power under Article 368 is unlimited. Which of the above statements is/are correct ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 7 I, II and III I only I and II II and III None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. Which of the following is included in the Central Government’s power under Section 3(2)(ii) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 8 Collection and dissemination of information in respect of matters relating to environmental pollution Laying down standards for the quality of the environment in its various aspects Carrying out and sponsoring investigations and research relating to problems of environmental pollution Planning and execution of a nation‑wide programme for the prevention, control and abatement of environmental pollution None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. A State Government plans to acquire 50 acres of Scheduled Tribes (ST) land for an industrial park. As per the applicable law, the following steps are proposed : (i) Preliminary notification (ii) Social Impact Assessment (SIA) (iii) Gram Sabha consultation/consent (iv) Final notification Which of the following statements is correct ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 9 Final notification can be issued without Gram Sabha, with owner consent only. Gram Sabha is advisory only; consent is not needed for public projects. Final notification can come before SIA but after preliminary notification. SIA and Gram Sabha consultation/consent are mandatory for ST land; acquisition can’t proceed without consent. None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. Under the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, what is the minimum term of imprisonment prescribed for giving or taking dowry ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 10 Not less than ten years Not less than seven years Not less than three years Not less than five years None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. A Magistrate of the Second Class passes a sentence of one month’s imprisonment. The accused wants to appeal. Based on the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, which of the following is true ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 11 An appeal lies only if a fine was also imposed. No appeal is maintainable in this specific instance. The accused is entitled to file an appeal before the Court of Session. The accused may prefer an appeal directly to the High Court. None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. X takes a loan of ₹ 10,00,000 from Bank A. Y signs a contract as surety, promising to pay the bank if X defaults. After 3 months, Bank A agrees to reduce the interest rate and extends the repayment period by 6 months without informing Y. Subsequently, X defaults on the loan. Which of the following statements correctly describes Y’s liability under the Indian Contract Act, 1872 ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 13 Y is liable only if the bank sues the principal debtor first, regardless of the modification. Y is not liable at all because the principal debtor defaulted after the contract modification. Y is fully liable for the entire loan because a surety is always liable once the principal debtor defaults. Y is partially discharged from liability because Bank A’s modification increased the risk to Y without his consent. None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, has introduced a specific timeframe for the delivery of a judgment after the conclusion of arguments. What is that timeframe ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 14 Within 90 days, provided the reasons for delay are recorded Within 30 days (extendable to 45 days) Within 60 days from the date of reserving the order Within a strict period of 15 days None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II. Statement : The Bar Council of India derives its rule‑making power from Section 49(1)(c) of the Advocates Act, 1961, which authorises it to frame rules governing professional conduct and etiquette to be observed by advocates. Rule 20 framed thereunder categorically bars an advocate from stipulating for, or receiving, any fee whose quantum is dependent upon the outcome of litigation, or from entering into any arrangement to share in its proceeds. An advocate who contravenes this Rule is liable to be proceeded against under Section 35 of the Act. Conclusion I : An advocate may lawfully enter into an outcome‑linked fee arrangement so long as the client’s written consent is obtained prior to the engagement. Conclusion II : An advocate who violates the prohibition on contingency‑based fees may face disciplinary action under the Advocates Act, 1961. In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 15 Only Conclusion II follows Only Conclusion I follows Neither Conclusion I nor II follows Both Conclusions I and II follow None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. As per the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where the plaintiff in a civil suit fails to pay the requisite court fee or postal charges for service of summons within the time permitted by the court, the court may : AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 35 Stay the proceedings until service is effected. Proceed to decide the suit on merits. Dismiss the suit. Return the plaint for fresh presentation. None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. Directions : The following question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R) is a correct explanation of the Assertion (A). Assertion (A) : The Constitution of India does not adopt a rigid separation of powers among the Legislature, Executive and Judiciary. Reason (R) : The constitutional framework incorporates a system of checks and balances, allowing limited functional overlap among the organs of the State. In the context of the Constitution of India, which one of the following is correct ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 38 Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (A) is false, but (R) is true. Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (A) is true, but (R) is false. None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. The five Golden Principles with respect to Circumstantial Evidence were laid down in which Supreme Court Judgment ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 21 Dr. Sunil Clifford Daniel v. State of Punjab (2012) 11 SCC 205 Vasa Chandrasekhar Rao v. Ponna Satyanarayana & Anr., 2000 AIR SC 2138 Sharad Birdhichand Sarda v. State of Maharashtra, 1984 AIR 1622 Dudh Nath Pandey v. State of U.P., 1981 SCC (2) 166 None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. Ajeet Singh, a famous singer, enters into a contract with Yash Aditya Music Company agreeing to perform exclusively for them for 2 years and not to perform for any other company during that period. After one year, Ajeet Singh refuses to perform for Yash Aditya Music Company and begins performing for BR Chopra & Company. Yash Aditya Music Company files a suit seeking an injunction restraining Ajeet Singh from performing for BR Chopra & Company. Which of the following statements is correct under the Specific Relief Act, 1963 ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 22 The court must compel Ajeet Singh to sing for Yash Aditya Music Company. The injunction may be granted to enforce the negative covenant. The injunction must be refused because contracts of personal service cannot be enforced. Only damages can be granted. None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. Which of the following innovative penal measures has been officially incorporated into the sentencing framework under Section 4 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 23 Community Service Compulsory forfeiture of ancestral property Life imprisonment without the possibility of parole Solitary confinement None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. In accordance with the provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a court, while examining pleadings, finds certain averments to be unnecessary and capable of prejudicing or delaying the fair trial, the court, in such a case, may : AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 24 Strike out such pleadings at any stage of proceedings. Ignore such pleadings without passing any order. Direct amendment only after trial begins. Reject the plaint in entirety. None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. During an India – Country X war, India declares X an enemy. A (an Indian citizen) enters into a contract to supply medicines to B (a citizen of X) via a neutral intermediary and a bank. Which of the following is most accurate under the Indian Contract Act, 1872 ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 25 Valid – goods are humanitarian and payment is via a neutral country. Void – trading with an enemy in war is prohibited and is against public policy. Voidable – only the Government of India can cancel. Valid unless the Government expressly cancels. None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. Under Section 35B of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a party fails to take a step required by the court on the date fixed, the court may : AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 26 Impose costs as a precondition for allowing further prosecution. Grant adjournment as a matter of right. Proceed with the suit without imposing any condition. Dismiss the suit. None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. Under the Uniform Civil Code Rules Uttarakhand, 2025, when is an application for declaration of legal heir(s) forwarded to the Registrar General ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 27 After thirty days of receipt if the Registrar does not take action After fifteen days of receipt if the Registrar does not take action After ten days of receipt if the Registrar does not take action None of the above None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. Under which specific provision of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, has the definition of a ‘Terrorist Act’ been formally integrated into India’s general penal legislation for the first time ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 28 Section 121 Section 113 Section 109 Section 152 None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. Under the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, within how many months from the date of marriage must dowry received before marriage be transferred to the woman ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 29 Within three months Within five months Within six months Within seven months None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. Directions : The following question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R) is a correct explanation of the Assertion (A). Assertion (A) : Income‑tax is levied on the total income of a person for the previous year. Reason (R) : Income earned during the previous year is assessed to tax in the immediately succeeding assessment year under the Income‑tax Act, 1961. Mark answer as : AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 30 (A) is false, but (R) is true. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (A) is true, but (R) is false. None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. Which of the following options correctly states the composition of a Disciplinary Committee of a Bar Council as prescribed under Section 9(1) of the Advocates Act, 1961 ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 32 Three members — all elected by the Council, with the most junior member serving as Chairman. Three members — two elected from the Council’s membership and one co‑opted advocate possessing the prescribed qualifications, who is not a member of the Council. Five members — three elected by the Council and two co‑opted senior advocates from outside the Council. Five members — all co‑opted from advocates having not less than ten years’ standing at the Bar. None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. Under the provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where a decree is passed against multiple defendants, one of whom was not served with summons and had no opportunity to contest, such a defendant may seek relief : AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 33 Only through an appeal against decree. Only by filing a separate suit. By applying for setting aside the ex‑parte decree. Only through review before the same court. None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. As per the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where the plaintiff in a civil suit fails to pay the requisite court fee or postal charges for service of summons within the time permitted by the court, the court may : AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 35 Stay the proceedings until service is effected. Proceed to decide the suit on merits. Dismiss the suit. Return the plaint for fresh presentation. None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. Under the scheme of the Constitution of India, once a Proclamation under Article 352 is in operation, Parliament may legislate on matters in the State List by virtue of : AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 36 Article 356 Article 360 Article 249 Article 250 None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. The term “Public Interest Litigation (PIL)” was first used by : AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 37 Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer Justice P.N. Bhagwati Prof. Upendra Baxi Prof. Abram Chayes None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. Under the provisions of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, what is the current range of punishments available to a court for the offence of ‘Defamation’ ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 39 Simple imprisonment, or fine, or both, or Community Service Rigorous imprisonment for 5 years Only a fine Only an apology in open court None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. Directions : The following question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the Reason (R) is a correct explanation of the Assertion (A). Assertion (A) : The respondent was engaged as a Safai Karamchari in a charitable trust. The dispute originated when he was terminated due to repeated absence from duty. The trust challenged the award on the grounds that it was not an ‘industry’ under Section 2(j) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, and therefore the worker was not a workman, making Section 25‑F inapplicable. Reason (R) : The trust engaged in multifarious activities including commercial ventures and hired employees for commercial and charitable activities in an organized manner with proper remuneration. In the context of the above Assertion and Reason under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, which one of the following is correct ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 31 Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (A) is true, but (R) is false. (A) is false, but (R) is true. None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. Which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, provides a summary legal remedy for the maintenance of spouses, children, and parents who are unable to support themselves ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 40 Section 320 Section 125 Section 107 Section 144 None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. The case of Parmanand Katara v. Union of India (1989) is primarily associated with which of the following rights ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 41 Right to life and personal liberty Right to emergency medical care Right to clean and healthy environment Right to speedy trial None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. According to the provisions of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, an accused person intending to apply for ‘Plea Bargaining’ must do so within how many days following the formal framing of charges ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 42 7 days 15 days 30 days 60 days None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. Under the scheme of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where proceedings are pending before a competent civil court, and an application is made seeking transfer of the case from one district to another district within the state, such transfer may be ordered : AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 43 Only by the court in which the suit is pending. By the High Court. Only after conclusion of trial. Only upon agreement between the parties. None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. Judicial intervention in arbitration proceedings is limited under Section 5 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996. In which of the following situations may a court intervene ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 44 When procedural irregularity is alleged without specific provision under the Act. When the court considers the award unjust on facts. When the Act expressly permits such intervention. When both parties request supervision of proceedings. None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. Which of the following statements is not true with respect to Section 65B of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 45 Arjun Panditrao Khotkar v. Kailash Kushanrao Gorantyal, (2020) 7 SCC 1 – landmark judgment stands as the latest interpretation of the relevant provisions, offering a consistent approach in line with the legislative intent. In State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu, reported in AIR 2005 SC 3820, the Hon’ble Supreme Court had held that courts could admit electronic records such as printouts and compact discs (CDs) as prima facie evidence without authentication. The requirement of a certificate under Section 65B(4) of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (“Evidence Act”), is a condition precedent to the admissibility of an electronic record in evidence. In P.V. Anvar v. P.K. Basheer, the court held that Section 65B is a “complete code” for electronic evidence. None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. Under Rule 8 of the Standards of Professional Conduct and Etiquette framed by the Bar Council of India, an advocate is prohibited from appearing before any court, tribunal or authority for or against an organisation or institution of which he is a member of its : AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 46 Sub‑Committee General Body Executive Committee Advisory Committee None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. Which of the following is not stated in Section 63(4) of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, with regard to a certificate to verify the authenticity of electronic evidence ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 47 Qualification of an expert. Signed by both the person in charge of the computer or communication device and an expert, with the certificate adhering to the format prescribed in the Adhiniyam’s Schedule. The form specified in the Schedule requires that electronic evidence be accompanied by a ‘hash value’. None of the above None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. The Information Technology Act, 2000, distinguishes between civil liability and criminal liability in cases of misuse of computer resources. In which of the following situations would such conduct attract criminal punishment rather than mere compensation ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 48 When the damage to computer resources exceeds a prescribed monetary limit When the act is done dishonestly or fraudulently in addition to unauthorised access When access to a computer system is without permission, irrespective of intent When the affected party chooses to initiate criminal proceedings None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. A, aged 80 years, executes a registered deed transferring a parcel of land to a trust with the conditions that, “The property shall be used forever for maintaining a public library and reading room for the residents of Village X. However, if at any time the property ceases to be used for this purpose, it shall revert to my heirs. Further, the income from the property shall accumulate for 50 years before being used for expansion of the library.” Which of the following statements is most accurate in law ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 49 The transfer is void because it violates the rule against perpetuity and the condition of accumulation beyond permissible limits. The transfer is valid as it falls within the exception for public benefit, but the accumulation clause is void to the extent it exceeds statutory limits. The transfer is valid in entirety, including the accumulation clause, because transfers for public purposes are fully exempt from all perpetuity‑related restrictions. The entire transfer is void because the reversionary clause creates uncertainty and violates public policy. None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. What is the year did the mandatory pre‑fitment of High Security Registration Plates (HSRP) for all new vehicles come into effect under the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 50 2018 2019 2024 2023 None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. In execution proceedings governed by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, where property of the judgment‑debtor is attached and a third party raises a claim asserting independent title, such claim : AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 51 Must be decided by instituting a separate civil suit. Requires prior determination by the court which passed the decree. Can be decided only after completion of execution proceedings. Shall be adjudicated by the executing court. None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. Whether a landowner who enters into a Joint Development Agreement with a builder, contributing land in exchange for 50% of the developed property and a monetary deposit can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 alleging construction defects and delay ? Which of the following statements is most accurate ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 52 The landowner is a consumer unless profit motive is proven. The landowner is not a consumer as the transaction constitutes a commercial joint venture. The landowner is a consumer as he did not construct himself. The landowner is a consumer if defects exist, irrespective of the nature of the transaction. None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. The Supreme Court of India in Harish Chandra Tiwari v. Baiju, (2002) 2 SCC 67, while considering the appropriate punishment for misappropriation of a client’s money by an advocate, held that : AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 53 Reprimand is the appropriate punishment for a first‑time misappropriation, since removal from the roll would be disproportionate. Misappropriation of a client’s money constitutes one of the gravest forms of professional misconduct and ordinarily warrants removal of the advocate’s name from the State roll. A monetary penalty equal to double the amount misappropriated is the appropriate sanction under the Act. Suspension from practice for a period of five years is the standard sanction for misappropriation of client funds. None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. According to Section 20 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, where the parties have not agreed on the place of arbitration, the arbitral tribunal shall determine it having regard to : AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 54 Circumstances of the case, including the convenience of the parties. Location of subject matter of dispute. Jurisdiction of the civil court alone. Place where the contract was executed. None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. Under the Patents Act, 1970, a patent is granted to an inventor in India. Which of the following correctly reflects a limitation on the patentee’s rights under the law ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 55 The patent becomes void if used by a government authority The patentee loses all rights once the invention is used by the Government The Government may use the invention for its own purposes without the consent of the patentee The invention cannot be used by the Government without permission None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. Pursuant to the definition provided in Section 378 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, which of the following constitutes an essential element of the offence of ‘Theft’ ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 58 The movement of movable property out of a person’s possession without their consent The requirement that the property must be removed from a public location exclusively The unauthorized movement of immovable property without the owner’s consent The employment of physical force or criminal violence against a person None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. Under the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, which specific provision provides the legal definition for a ‘Bailable Offence’ ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 59 Section 2(h) Section 2(c) Section 2(x) Section 2(a) None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. Regarding the offence of ‘Criminal Conspiracy’ as defined under Section 120A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, which of the following statements is legally accurate ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 57 It is a substantive offence that is legally barred from being charged in conjunction with other substantive crimes. The mere agreement between parties is sufficient to constitute the offence if the intended crime is punishable by death or rigorous imprisonment. A minimum of five persons must participate to satisfy the legal definition. A solitary individual’s mere intention to commit a crime, even without an agreement with others, is sufficient for a conviction. None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II. Statement : Section 5 of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 gives a detailed procedure for fixing or revising minimum wages in respect of any scheduled employment. After considering the advice of the committees appointed, and all representations received by it before the date notified in the Gazette notification, the appropriate Government may by notification in the official gazette, fix or revise the minimum rates of wages. Conclusion I : If a date is specified in the notification, the minimum rates shall come into force from such date. Conclusion II : If no date is specified, then they shall come into force from the expiry of three months from the date of issue of the notification. In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 60 Only Conclusion II follows Both Conclusions I and II follow Neither Conclusion I nor II follows Only Conclusion I follows None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. Under the Special Marriage Act, 1954, what is the maximum fine that may be imposed for printing or publishing matter in contravention of provisions relating to in‑camera proceedings ? AIBE XXI Question Paper – Set B – Question 62 Fine up to five hundred rupees Fine up to one thousand rupees Fine up to five thousand rupees Fine up to two thousand rupees None Show Hint Consider the relevant statutory provision or legal principle applicable to the question. Loading questions... Loading questions... Previous Start Quiz Next Time's up
